[Q554-Q579] Try 100% Updated 200-301 Exam Questions [2025]

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Try 100% Updated 200-301 Exam Questions [2025]

Pass 200-301 Exam - Real Questions and Answers


Cisco 200-301 exam is a comprehensive certification exam that tests the candidate’s knowledge and skills in networking. It is a valuable certification for individuals who are interested in pursuing a career in networking or for those who are already working in the field and want to advance their career. Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam certification is recognized worldwide and is highly valued by employers.

 

NEW QUESTION # 554
in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

  • A. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
  • B. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch
  • C. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks
  • D. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them

Answer: B

Explanation:
Spine-leaf architecture is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer). Spine-leaf topologies provide high-bandwidth, low-latency, nonblocking server-to-server connectivity.
Leaf (aggregation) switches are what provide devices access to the fabric (the network of spine and leaf switches) and are typically deployed at the top of the rack. Generally, devices connect to the leaf switches.
Devices can include servers, Layer 4-7 services (firewalls and load balancers), and WAN or Internet routers. Leaf switches do not connect to other leaf switches. In spine-and-leaf architecture, every leaf should connect to every spine in a full mesh.
Spine (aggregation) switches are used to connect to all leaf switches and are typically deployed at the end or middle of the row. Spine switches do not connect to other spine switches.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-9000-series- switches/guide- c07-733228.html


NEW QUESTION # 555

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

  • A. Option D
  • B. Option B
  • C. Option A
  • D. Option C

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 556

Refer to the exhibit. Router-WAN1 has a new connection via Gi0/0 to the ISP. Users running the web applications indicate that connectivity is unstable to the internet. What is causing the interface issue?

  • A. The receive buffer is full due to a broadcast storm.
  • B. Frames are discarded due to a half-duplex negotiation.
  • C. Small frames less than 64 bytes are rejected due to size.
  • D. Broadcast packets are rejected because ARP timeout is enabled.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 557
Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 558
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

  • A. mode on
  • B. auto
  • C. passive
  • D. active

Answer: D

Explanation:
From the neighbor status, we notice the "Flags" are SP. "P" here means the neighbor is in Passive mode. In order to create an Etherchannel interface, the (local) SW1 ports should be in Active mode. Moreover, the "Port State" in the exhibit is "0x3c" (which equals to "00111100" in binary format). Bit 3 is "1" which means the ports are synchronizing -> the ports are working so the local ports should be in Active mode.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3650/software/release/3se/consolidated_guide/command_reference/b_c


NEW QUESTION # 559
Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 560
Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

  • A. replace
  • B. read
  • C. update
  • D. create

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 561
Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration must an engineer implement so that R1 is elected as the DR?

  • A. Option D
  • B. Option B
  • C. Option A
  • D. Option C

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 562
Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 563
Refer to the exhibit.

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two )

  • A. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101
  • B. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1
  • C. Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
  • D. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2
  • E. Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

Answer: A,E


NEW QUESTION # 564
Refer to Exhibit.

Rotor to the exhibit. The IP address configurations must be completed on the DC-1 and HQ-1 routers based on these requirements:
DC-1 Gi1/0 must be the last usable address on a /30
DC-1 Gi1/1 must be the first usable address on a /29
DC-1 Gi1/2 must be the last usable address on a /28
HQ-1 Gil/3 must be the last usable address on a /29
Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the destination interfaces on the right. Not all commands are used

Answer:

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 565
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

  • A. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down
  • B. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.
  • C. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms
  • D. After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Enabling the PortFast feature causes a switch or a trunk port to enter the STP forwarding-state immediately or upon a linkup event, thus bypassing the listening and learning states.
Note: To enable portfast on a trunk port you need the trunk keyword "spanning-tree portfast trunk"


NEW QUESTION # 566
How will Link Aggregation be Implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

  • A. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.
  • B. To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.
  • C. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.
  • D. The EthernetChannel must be configured in "mode active".

Answer: C

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-5/configuration-guide/b_cg75
/b_cg75_chapter_0100010.html


NEW QUESTION # 567
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 568
Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

  • A. 255.255.255.252
  • B. 255.255.254.0
  • C. 255.255.255.240
  • D. 255.255.255.248

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 569
What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

  • A. TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.
  • B. TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.
  • C. TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.
  • D. TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 570
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the IPv6 address types from the left onto their description on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 571
Refer to the exhibit.

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?

  • A. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use
  • B. There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface
  • C. The interface is not participating in OSPF
  • D. A point-to-point network type is configured

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13689-17.html


NEW QUESTION # 572
What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for a Next-Generation IPS?

  • A. authenticating end users
  • B. inspecting specific files and file types for malware
  • C. URL filtering
  • D. authorizing potentially compromised wireless traffic

Answer: B

Explanation:
AMP gives you real-time blocking of malware and advanced sandboxing, that is backed up by world class global threat intelligence, to provide rapid detection, containment and removal of advanced malware
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/amp-appliances/index.html


NEW QUESTION # 573
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

  • A. It drops the traffic
  • B. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN
  • C. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN
  • D. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

Answer: D

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960x/software/15-0_2_EX/vlan/configuration_guide/b_vlan_152ex_2960-x_cg/b_vlan_152ex_2960-x_cg_chapter_0110.pdf
Untagged traffic from the device attached to the Cisco IP Phone passes through the phone unchanged, regardless of the trust state of the access port on the phone.


NEW QUESTION # 574
Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)

B)

C)

D)

  • A. Option D
  • B. Option B
  • C. Option A
  • D. Option C

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 575
Refer to the exhibit. The user has connectivity to devices on network 192.168.3 0/24 but cannot reach users on the network 10.10.1.0724.
What is the first step to verify connectivity?

  • A. Is the internet reachable?
  • B. Is the default gateway reachable?
  • C. Is the DNS server reachable?

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 576
What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

  • A. making routing decisions
  • B. fragmenting and reassembling packets
  • C. forwarding packets
  • D. multicast replication at the hardware level

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 577

Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP server is configured with a DHCP pool for each of the subnets represented.
Which command must be configured on switch SW1 to allow DHCP clients on VLAN 10 to receive dynamic IP addresses from the DHCP server?

  • A. SW1(config-if)#ip helper-address 192.168.10.2
  • B. SW1(config-if)#ip helper-address 192.168.20.1
  • C. SW1(config-if)#ip helper-address 192.168.10.1
  • D. SW1(config-if)#ip helper-address 192.168.20.2

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 578
What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

  • A. Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates
  • B. Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.
  • C. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.
  • D. Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

Answer: C

Explanation:
AAA stands for Authentication, Authorization and Accounting.
+ Authentication: Specify who you are (usually via login username & password) + Authorization:
Specify what actions you can do, what resource you can access + Accounting: Monitor what you do, how long you do it (can be used for billing and auditing) An example of AAA is shown below:
+ Authentication: "I am a normal user. My username/password is user_tom/learnforever" + Authorization: "user_tom can access LearnCCNA server via HTTP and FTP" + Accounting:
"user_tom accessed LearnCCNA server for 2 hours". This user only uses "show" commands.


NEW QUESTION # 579
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200-301 Exam Questions Get Updated [2025] with Correct Answers: https://www.prep4sureguide.com/200-301-prep4sure-exam-guide.html

Free Cisco 200-301 Test Practice Test Questions Exam Dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1pjMg5TAXnBiJWnuvKirE58qMhIyvL6vK