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Free SSCP Test Questions Real Practice Test Questions
Here is the information about the validity of the ISC SSCP Certification:
The certification is valid for three years, after which it expires, and you have to renew it by taking the SSCP exam again. The exam is divided into two parts, each with its own maximum score of 250 points.
The first part of the exam focuses on security risk management and is worth up to 125 points. This section covers how security policies are developed, along with procedures used to keep them updated. It also includes how to perform risk assessments plus policy compliance issues. Other topics include organizational security management; security policies; laws, regulations, and guidelines; and incident response scenarios. Most of the candidates think that it is extremely difficult. But it depends upon how well you are prepared for the exam. For the preparation of the SSCP exam, there are many resources including SSCP Dumps. If you prepare for your SSCP exam with smart work, you can not only pass the SSCP exam but can also get good marks.
NEW QUESTION # 322
Which of the following methods of providing telecommunications continuity involves the use of an alternative media?
- A. Long haul network diversity
- B. Last mile circuit protection
- C. Diverse routing
- D. Alternative routing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Alternative routing is a method of routing information via an alternate medium such as copper cable or fiber optics. This involves use of different networks, circuits or end points should the normal network be unavailable. Diverse routing routes traffic through split cable facilities or duplicate cable facilities. This can be accomplished with different and/or duplicate cable sheaths. If different cable sheaths are used, the cable may be in the same conduit and therefore subject to the same interruptions as the cable it is backing up. The communication service subscriber can duplicate the facilities by having alternate routes, although the entrance to and from the customer premises may be in the same conduit. The subscriber can obtain diverse routing and alternate routing from the local carrier, including dual entrance facilities. This type of access is time-consuming and costly. Long haul network diversity is a diverse long-distance network utilizing T1 circuits among the major long-distance carriers. It ensures long-distance access should any one carrier experience a network failure. Last mile circuit protection is a redundant combination of local carrier T1s microwave and/or coaxial cable access to the local communications loop. This enables the facility to have access during a local carrier communication disaster. Alternate local carrier routing is also utilized. Source: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, chapter 5: Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (page 259).
NEW QUESTION # 323
A variation of the application layer firewall is called a:
- A. Cache Level Firewall.
- B. Session Level Firewall.
- C. Circuit Level Firewall.
- D. Current Level Firewall.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
Terminology can be confusing between the different souces as both CBK and AIO3 call an application layer firewall a proxy and proxy servers are generally classified as either circuit-level proxies or application level proxies.
The distinction is that a circuit level proxy creates a conduit through which a trusted host can communicate with an untrusted one and doesn't really look at the application contents of the packet (as an application level proxy does). SOCKS is one of the better known circuit-level proxies.
Firewalls
Packet Filtering Firewall - First Generation
n Screening Router
n Operates at Network and Transport level
n Examines Source and Destination IP Address
n Can deny based on ACLs
n Can specify Port
Application Level Firewall - Second Generation
n Proxy Server
n Copies each packet from one network to the other
n Masks the origin of the data
n Operates at layer 7 (Application Layer)
n Reduces Network performance since it has do analyze each packet and decide what to do with it.
n Also Called Application Layer Gateway
Stateful Inspection Firewalls - Third Generation
n Packets Analyzed at all OSI layers
n Queued at the network level
n Faster than Application level Gateway
Dynamic Packet Filtering Firewalls - Fourth Generation
n Allows modification of security rules
n Mostly used for UDP
n Remembers all of the UDP packets that have crossed the network's perimeter, and it decides whether to enable packets to pass through the firewall.
Kernel Proxy - Fifth Generation
n Runs in NT Kernel
n Uses dynamic and custom TCP/IP-based stacks to inspect the network packets and to enforce security policies.
"Current level firewall" is incorrect. This is an amost-right-sounding distractor to confuse the unwary.
"Cache level firewall" is incorrect. This too is a distractor.
"Session level firewall" is incorrect. This too is a distractor.
References
CBK, p. 466 - 467
AIO3, pp. 486 - 490
CISSP Study Notes from Exam Prep Guide
NEW QUESTION # 324
The IP header contains a protocol field. If this field contains the value of 6, what type of data is contained within the ip datagram?
- A. UDP.
- B. IGMP.
- C. TCP.
- D. ICMP.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
If the protocol field has a value of 6 then it would indicate it was TCP.
The protocol field of the IP packet dictates what protocol the IP packet is using.
TCP=6, ICMP=1, UDP=17, IGMP=2
The following answers are incorrect:
ICMP. Is incorrect because the value for an ICMP protocol would be 1.
UDP. Is incorrect because the value for an UDP protocol would be 17.
IGMP. Is incorrect because the value for an IGMP protocol would be 2.
References:
SANS http://www.sans.org/resources/tcpip.pdf?ref=3871
NEW QUESTION # 325
What is the name of the protocol use to set up and manage Security Associations (SA) for IP Security (IPSec)?
- A. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
- B. Oakley
- C. Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol
- D. Secure Key Exchange Mechanism
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The Key management for IPSec is called the Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
Note: IKE underwent a series of improvements establishing IKEv2 with RFC 4306. The basis of this answer is IKEv2.
The IKE protocol is a hybrid of three other protocols: ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol), Oakley and SKEME. ISAKMP provides a framework for authentication and key exchange, but does not define them (neither authentication nor key exchange). The Oakley protocol describes a series of modes for key exchange and the SKEME protocol defines key exchange techniques.
IKE-Internet Key Exchange. A hybrid protocol that implements Oakley and Skeme key exchanges inside the ISAKMP framework. IKE can be used with other protocols, but its initial implementation is with the IPSec protocol. IKE provides authentication of the IPSec peers, negotiates IPSec keys, and negotiates IPSec security associations.
IKE is implemented in accordance with RFC 2409, The Internet Key Exchange.
The Internet Key Exchange (IKE) security protocol is a key management protocol standard that is used in conjunction with the IPSec standard. IPSec can be configured without IKE, but IKE enhances IPSec by providing additional features, flexibility, and ease of configuration for the IPSec standard.
IKE is a hybrid protocol that implements the Oakley key exchange and the SKEME key exchange inside the Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP) framework. (ISAKMP, Oakley, and SKEME are security protocols implemented by IKE.)
IKE automatically negotiates IPSec security associations (SAs) and enables IPSec secure communications without costly manual preconfiguration. Specifically, IKE provides these benefits:
*Eliminates the need to manually specify all the IPSec security parameters in the crypto maps at both peers.
*Allows you to specify a lifetime for the IPSec security association.
*Allows encryption keys to change during IPSec sessions.
*Allows IPSec to provide anti-replay services.
*Permits certification authority (CA) support for a manageable, scalable IPSec implementation.
*Allows dynamic authentication of peers.
About ISAKMP
The Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP) is a framework that defines the phases for establishing a secure relationship and support for negotiation of security attributes, it does not establish sessions keys by itself, it is used along with the Oakley session key establishment protocol. The Secure Key Exchange Mechanism (SKEME) describes a secure exchange mechanism and Oakley defines the modes of operation needed to establish a secure connection.
ISAKMP provides a framework for Internet key management and provides the specific protocol support for negotiation of security attributes. Alone, it does not establish session keys. However it can be used with various session key establishment protocols, such as Oakley, to provide a complete solution to Internet key management.
About Oakley
The Oakley protocol uses a hybrid Diffie-Hellman technique to establish session keys on Internet hosts and routers. Oakley provides the important security property of Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) and is based on cryptographic techniques that have survived substantial public scrutiny. Oakley can be used by itself, if no attribute negotiation is needed, or Oakley can be used in conjunction with ISAKMP. When ISAKMP is used with Oakley, key escrow is not feasible.
The ISAKMP and Oakley protocols have been combined into a hybrid protocol. The resolution of ISAKMP with Oakley uses the framework of ISAKMP to support a subset of Oakley key exchange modes. This new key exchange protocol provides optional PFS, full security association attribute negotiation, and authentication methods that provide both repudiation and non-repudiation. Implementations of this protocol can be used to establish VPNs and also allow for users from remote sites (who may have a dynamically allocated IP address) access to a secure network.
About IPSec
The IETF's IPSec Working Group develops standards for IP-layer security mechanisms for both IPv4 and IPv6. The group also is developing generic key management protocols for use on the Internet. For more information, refer to the IP Security and Encryption Overview.
IPSec is a framework of open standards developed by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) that provides security for transmission of sensitive information over unprotected networks such as the Internet.
It acts at the network level and implements the following standards:
IPSec
Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
Data Encryption Standard (DES)
MD5 (HMAC variant)
SHA (HMAC variant)
Authentication Header (AH)
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
IPSec services provide a robust security solution that is standards-based. IPSec also provides data authentication and anti-replay services in addition to data confidentiality services.
For more information regarding IPSec, refer to the chapter "Configuring IPSec Network Security." About SKEME
SKEME constitutes a compact protocol that supports a variety of realistic scenarios and security models over Internet. It provides clear tradeoffs between security and performance as required by the different scenarios without incurring in unnecessary system complexity. The protocol supports key exchange based on public key, key distribution centers, or manual installation, and provides for fast and secure key refreshment. In addition, SKEME selectively provides perfect forward secrecy, allows for replaceability and negotiation of the underlying cryptographic primitives, and addresses privacy issues as anonymity and repudiatability
SKEME's basic mode is based on the use of public keys and a Diffie-Hellman shared secret generation.
However, SKEME is not restricted to the use of public keys, but also allows the use of a pre-shared key.
This key can be obtained by manual distribution or by the intermediary of a key distribution center (KDC) such as Kerberos.
In short, SKEME contains four distinct modes:
Basic mode, which provides a key exchange based on public keys and ensures PFS thanks to Diffie- Hellman.
A key exchange based on the use of public keys, but without Diffie-Hellman.
A key exchange based on the use of a pre-shared key and on Diffie-Hellman.
A mechanism of fast rekeying based only on symmetrical algorithms.
In addition, SKEME is composed of three phases: SHARE, EXCH and AUTH.
During the SHARE phase, the peers exchange half-keys, encrypted with their respective public keys.
These two half-keys are used to compute a secret key K. If anonymity is wanted, the identities of the two peers are also encrypted. If a shared secret already exists, this phase is skipped.
The exchange phase (EXCH) is used, depending on the selected mode, to exchange either Diffie- Hellman public values or nonces. The Diffie-Hellman shared secret will only be computed after the end of the exchanges.
The public values or nonces are authenticated during the authentication phase (AUTH), using the secret key established during the SHARE phase.
The messages from these three phases do not necessarily follow the order described above; in actual practice they are combined to minimize the number of exchanged messages.
References used for this question:
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 172).
http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc4306
http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc4301
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Internet_Key_Exchange
CISCO ISAKMP and OAKLEY information
CISCO Configuring Internet Key Exchange Protocol
http://www.hsc.fr/ressources/articles/ipsec-tech/index.html.en
NEW QUESTION # 326
Which of the following outlined how senior management are responsible for the computer and information security decisions that they make and what actually took place within their organizations?
- A. The Economic Espionage Act of 1996.
- B. The Computer Security Act of 1987.
- C. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act of 1986.
- D. The Federal Sentencing Guidelines of 1991.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In 1991, U.S. Federal Sentencing Guidelines were developed to provide judges with courses of action in dealing with white collar crimes. These guidelines provided ways that companies and law enforcement should prevent, detect and report computer crimes. It also outlined how senior management are responsible for the computer and information security decisions that they make and what actually took place within their organizations.
NEW QUESTION # 327
Which of the following backup methods is most appropriate for off-site archiving?
- A. Incremental backup method
- B. Full backup method
- C. Differential backup method
- D. Off-site backup method
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
The full backup makes a complete backup of every file on the system every time it is run. Since a single backup set is needed to perform a full restore, it is appropriate for off-site archiving.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page
69).
NEW QUESTION # 328
A DMZ is also known as a
- A. bastion host
- B. a place to attract hackers
- C. screened subnet
- D. three legged firewall
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
This is another name for the demilitarized zone (DMZ) of a network.
"Three legged firewall" is incorrect. While a DMZ can be implemented on one leg of such a device, this is not the best answer.
"A place to attract hackers" is incorrect. The DMZ is a way to provide limited public access to an organization's internal resources (DNS, EMAIL, public web, etc) not as an attractant for hackers.
"Bastion host" is incorrect. A bastion host serves as a gateway between trusted and untrusted network.
References:
CBK, p. 434
AIO3, pp. 495 - 496
NEW QUESTION # 329
What is called the access protection system that limits connections by calling back the number of a previously authorized location?
- A. Callback forward systems
- B. Sendback systems
- C. Callback systems
- D. Sendback forward systems
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
The Answer: Call back Systems; Callback systems provide access protection by calling back the number of a previously authorized location, but this control can be compromised by call forwarding.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 35.
NEW QUESTION # 330
What does it mean to say that sensitivity labels are "incomparable"?
- A. Neither label contains all the categories of the other.
- B. the number of categories in the two labels are different.
- C. The number of classification in the two labels is different.
- D. Neither label contains all the classifications of the other.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Access Control
Explanation/Reference:
If a category does not exist then you cannot compare it. Incomparable is when you have two disjointed sensitivity labels, that is a category in one of the labels is not in the other label. "Because neither label contains all the categories of the other, the labels can't be compared. They're said to be incomparable" COMPARABILITY:
The label:
TOP SECRET [VENUS ALPHA]
is "higher" than either of the labels:
SECRET [VENUS ALPHA] TOP SECRET [VENUS]
But you can't really say that the label:
TOP SECRET [VENUS]
is higher than the label:
SECRET [ALPHA]
Because neither label contains all the categories of the other, the labels can't be compared. They're said to be incomparable. In a mandatory access control system, you won't be allowed access to a file whose label is incomparable to your clearance.
The Multilevel Security policy uses an ordering relationship between labels known as the dominance relationship. Intuitively, we think of a label that dominates another as being "higher" than the other. Similarly, we think of a label that is dominated by another as being "lower" than the other. The dominance relationship is used to determine permitted operations and information flows.
DOMINANCE
The dominance relationship is determined by the ordering of the Sensitivity/Clearance component of the label and the intersection of the set of Compartments.
Sample Sensitivity/Clearance ordering are:
Top Secret > Secret > Confidential > Unclassified
s3 > s2 > s1 > s0
Formally, for label one to dominate label 2 both of the following must be true:
The sensitivity/clearance of label one must be greater than or equal to the sensitivity/clearance of label two.
The intersection of the compartments of label one and label two must equal the compartments of label two.
Additionally:
Two labels are said to be equal if their sensitivity/clearance and set of compartments are exactly equal. Note that dominance includes equality.
One label is said to strictly dominate the other if it dominates the other but is not equal to the other.
Two labels are said to be incomparable if each label has at least one compartment that is not included in the other's set of compartments.
The dominance relationship will produce a partial ordering over all possible MLS labels, resulting in what is known as the MLS Security Lattice.
The following answers are incorrect:
The number of classification in the two labels is different. Is incorrect because the categories are what is being compared, not the classifications.
Neither label contains all the classifications of the other. Is incorrect because the categories are what is being compared, not the classifications.
the number of categories in the two labels is different. Is incorrect because it is possibe a category exists more than once in one sensitivity label and does exist in the other so they would be comparable.
Reference(s) used for this question:
OReilly - Computer Systems and Access Control (Chapter 3)
http://www.oreilly.com/catalog/csb/chapter/ch03.html
and
http://rubix.com/cms/mls_dom
NEW QUESTION # 331
Which of the following would be LESS likely to prevent an employee from reporting an incident?
- A. They are afraid of being accused of something they didn't do.
- B. They are unaware of the company's security policies and procedures.
- C. They are afraid of being pulled into something they don't want to be involved with.
- D. The process of reporting incidents is centralized.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Analysis and Monitoring
Explanation/Reference:
The reporting process should be centralized else employees won't bother.
The other answers are incorrect because :
They are afraid of being pulled into something they don't want to be involved with is incorrect as most of the employees fear of this and this would prevent them to report an incident.
They are afraid of being accused of something they didn't do is also incorrect as this also prevents them to report an incident.
They are unaware of the company's security policies and procedures is also incorrect as mentioned above.
Reference : Shon Harris AIO v3 , Ch-10 : Laws , Investigatio & Ethics , Page : 675.
NEW QUESTION # 332
Which of the following describes a logical form of separation used by secure computing systems?
- A. Processes use different levels of security for input and output devices.
- B. Processes conceal data and computations to inhibit access by outside processes.
- C. Processes are constrained so that each cannot access objects outside its permitted domain.
- D. Processes are granted access based on granularity of controlled objects.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.
NEW QUESTION # 333
Kerberos can prevent which one of the following attacks?
- A. destructive attack.
- B. playback (replay) attack.
- C. process attack.
- D. tunneling attack.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Access Control
Explanation/Reference:
Each ticket in Kerberos has a timestamp and are subject to time expiration to help prevent these types of attacks.
The following answers are incorrect:
tunneling attack. This is incorrect because a tunneling attack is an attempt to bypass security and access low- level systems. Kerberos cannot totally prevent these types of attacks.
destructive attack. This is incorrect because depending on the type of destructive attack, Kerberos cannot prevent someone from physically destroying a server.
process attack. This is incorrect because with Kerberos cannot prevent an authorzied individuals from running processes.
NEW QUESTION # 334
How is Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) derived from a threat?
- A. SLE/EF
- B. AV x EF
- C. SLE x ARO
- D. ARO x (SLE - EF)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
Three steps are undertaken in a quantitative risk assessment:
Initial management approval
Construction of a risk assessment team, and
The review of information currently available within the organization.
There are a few formulas that you MUST understand for the exam. See them below:
SLE (Single Loss Expectancy)
Single loss expectancy (SLE) must be calculated to provide an estimate of loss. SLE is defined as the difference between the original value and the remaining value of an asset after a single exploit.
The formula for calculating SLE is as follows: SLE = asset value (in $) × exposure factor (loss due to successful threat exploit, as a %) Losses can include lack of availability of data assets due to data loss, theft, alteration, or denial of service (perhaps due to business continuity or security issues).
ALE (Annualized Loss Expectancy)
Next, the organization would calculate the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO).
This is done to provide an accurate calculation of annualized loss expectancy (ALE).
ARO is an estimate of how often a threat will be successful in exploiting a vulnerability over the period of a year.
When this is completed, the organization calculates the annualized loss expectancy (ALE).
The ALE is a product of the yearly estimate for the exploit (ARO) and the loss in value of an asset after an SLE.
The calculation follows ALE = SLE x ARO
Note that this calculation can be adjusted for geographical distances using the local annual frequency estimate (LAFE) or the standard annual frequency estimate (SAFE). Given that there is now a value for SLE, it is possible to determine what the organization should spend, if anything, to apply a countermeasure for the risk in question.
Remember that no countermeasure should be greater in cost than the risk it mitigates, transfers, or avoids.
Countermeasure cost per year is easy and straightforward to calculate. It is simply the cost of the countermeasure divided by the years of its life (i.e., use within the organization). Finally, the organization is able to compare the cost of the risk versus the cost of the countermeasure and make some objective decisions regarding its countermeasure selection.
The following were incorrect answers:
All of the other choices were incorrect.
The following reference(s) were used for this quesiton:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 10048-10069). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION # 335
Which of the following standards concerns digital certificates?
- A. X.25
- B. X.75
- C. X.509
- D. X.400
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Cryptography
Explanation/Reference:
X.509 is used in digital certificates. X.400 is used in e-mail as a message handling protocol. X.25 is a standard for the network and data link levels of a communication network and X.75 is a standard defining ways of connecting two X.25 networks.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 164).
NEW QUESTION # 336
Which of the following is used in database information security to hide information?
- A. Inheritance
- B. Polymorphism
- C. Delegation
- D. Polyinstantiation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Polyinstantiation enables a relation to contain multiple tuples with the same primary keys with each instance distinguished by a security level. When this information is inserted into a database, lower-level subjects need to be restricted from this information. Instead of just restricting access, another set of data is created to fool the lower-level subjects into thinking that the information actually means something else. Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 11: Application and System Development (page 727).
NEW QUESTION # 337
Which of the following virus types changes some of its characteristics as it spreads?
- A. Polymorphic
- B. Parasitic
- C. Stealth
- D. Boot Sector
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Malicious Code
Explanation/Reference:
A Polymorphic virus produces varied but operational copies of itself in hopes of evading anti-virus software.
The following answers are incorrect:
boot sector. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A boot sector virus attacks the boot sector of a drive.
It describes the type of attack of the virus and not the characteristics of its composition.
parasitic. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A parasitic virus attaches itself to other files but does not change its characteristics.
stealth. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A stealth virus attempts to hide changes of the affected files but not itself.
NEW QUESTION # 338
Which of the following is an example of a connectionless communication protocol?
- A. TCP
- B. Packet switching
- C. X.25
- D. UDP
Answer: D
Explanation:
UDP is an example of connectionless communication protocol, wherein no connection needs to be established before data can be exchanged.
In telecommunications, connectionless describes communication between two network end points in which a message can be sent from one end point to another without prior arrangement. The device at one end of the communication transmits data addressed to the other, without first ensuring that the recipient is available and ready to receive the data. Some protocols allow for error correction by requested retransmission. Internet Protocol (IP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) are connectionless protocols.
Connectionless protocols are also described as stateless because the endpoints have no protocol-defined way to remember where they are in a "conversation" of message exchanges. List of connectionless protocols
Hypertext Transfer Protocol IP UDP ICMP IPX TIPC NetBEUI
References:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 86). and https://secure.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/wiki/Connectionless_protocol
NEW QUESTION # 339
What can be best defined as the examination of threat sources against system vulnerabilities to determine the threats for a particular system in a particular operational environment?
- A. Risk management
- B. Due diligence
- C. Risk analysis
- D. Threat analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Threat analysis is the examination of threat sources against system vulnerabilities to determine the threats for a particular system in a particular operational environment.
The following answers are incorrect:
Risk analysis is the process of identifying the risks to system security and determining the probability of occurrence, the resulting impact, and the additional safeguards that mitigate this impact.
Risk analysis is synonymous with risk assessment and part of risk management, which is the ongoing process of assessing the risk to mission/business as part of a risk-based approach used to determine adequate security for a system by analyzing the threats and vulnerabilities and selecting appropriate, cost-effective controls to achieve and maintain an acceptable level or risk.
Due Diligence is identifying possible risks that could affect a company based on best practices and standards.
Reference(s) used for this question:
STONEBURNER, Gary & al, National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication 800-27, Engineering Principles for Information Technology Security (A Baseline for Achieving Security), June 2001 (page B-3).
NEW QUESTION # 340
Which type of attack involves the alteration of a packet at the IP level to convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity in order to gain access to a system?
- A. TCP sequence number attack
- B. IP spoofing attack
- C. Piggybacking attack
- D. Teardrop attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
An IP spoofing attack is used to convince a system that it is communication with a known entity that gives an intruder access. It involves modifying the source address of a packet for a trusted source's address. A TCP sequence number attack involves hijacking a session between a host and a target by predicting the target's choice of an initial TCP sequence number. Piggybacking refers to an attacker gaining unauthorized access to a system by using a legitimate user's connection. A teardrop attack consists of modifying the length and fragmentation offset fields in sequential IP packets so the target system becomes confused and crashes after it receives contradictory instructions on how the fragments are offset on these packets.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page
77).
NEW QUESTION # 341
Which of the following questions are least likely to help in assessing controls covering audit trails?
- A. Is there separation of duties between security personnel who administer the access control function and those who administer the audit trail?
- B. Are incidents monitored and tracked until resolved?
- C. Is access to online logs strictly controlled?
- D. Does the audit trail provide a trace of user actions?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Audit trails maintain a record of system activity by system or application processes and by user activity. In conjunction with appropriate tools and procedures, audit trails can provide individual accountability, a means to reconstruct events, detect intrusions, and identify problems. Audit trail controls are considered technical controls. Monitoring and tracking of incidents is more an operational control related to incident response capability.
Reference(s) used for this question:
SWANSON, Marianne, NIST Special Publication 800-26, Security Self-Assessment Guide for Information Technology Systems, November 2001 (Pages A-50 to A-51).
NOTE: NIST SP 800-26 has been superceded By: FIPS 200, SP 800-53, SP 800-53A You can find the new replacement at: http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/PubsSPs.html However, if you really wish to see the old standard, it is listed as an archived document at:
http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/PubsSPArch.html
NEW QUESTION # 342
Controls provide accountability for individuals who are accessing sensitive information. This accountability is accomplished:
- A. through access control mechanisms that require identification and authentication and through the audit function.
- B. through logical or technical controls but not involving the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information.
- C. through logical or technical controls involving the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information.
- D. through access control mechanisms that do not require identification and authentication and do not operate through the audit function.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Controls provide accountability for individuals who are accessing sensitive information. This accountability is accomplished through access control mechanisms that require identification and authentication and through the audit function. These controls must be in accordance with and accurately represent the organization's security policy. Assurance procedures ensure that the control mechanisms correctly implement the security policy for the entire life cycle of an information system. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 33.
NEW QUESTION # 343
The security of a computer application is most effective and economical in which of the following cases?
- A. The system is procured off-the-shelf.
- B. The system is optimized prior to the addition of security.
- C. The system is customized to meet the specific security threat.
- D. The system is originally designed to provide the necessary security.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Security Operation Adimnistration
Explanation/Reference:
The earlier in the process that security is planned for and implement the cheaper it is. It is also much more efficient if security is addressed in each phase of the development cycle rather than an add-on because it gets more complicated to add at the end. If security plan is developed at the beginning it ensures that security won't be overlooked.
The following answers are incorrect:
The system is optimized prior to the addition of security. Is incorrect because if you wait to implement security after a system is completed the cost of adding security increases dramtically and can become much more complex.
The system is procured off-the-shelf. Is incorrect because it is often difficult to add security to off-the shelf systems.
The system is customized to meet the specific security threat. Is incorrect because this is a distractor. This implies only a single threat.
NEW QUESTION # 344
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