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NEW QUESTION # 104
Which item must be examined in detail when evaluating the risks associated with a new software as a service (SaaS) solution?
- A. Maintenance releases or patches to install
- B. Use of low-level accounts for administrative tasks
- C. Historical availability of services
- D. Leverage of multi-factor authentication for all cloud access
Answer: C
Explanation:
When evaluating the risks of a new Software as a Service (SaaS) solution, the historical availability of services must be examined in detail. Managing Cloud principles explain that availability is a critical risk factor because customers rely entirely on the provider to deliver uninterrupted access to applications and data.
Reviewing historical uptime, outage frequency, and incident response performance provides insight into the provider's operational maturity and resilience. Past availability metrics help organizations assess whether the SaaS provider can meet business continuity, disaster recovery, and service level expectations.
The other options represent security controls or operational activities but are not primary risk indicators during SaaS evaluation. Administrative account usage and multi-factor authentication relate to access controls, while patching is managed by the provider in SaaS environments. Therefore, historical availability is the most relevant item to assess.
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which security device allows customers to redirect traffic?
- A. Intrusion detection and prevention systems
- B. Web application firewalls
- C. Security information and event management
- D. Cryptographic key management
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Web Application Firewall (WAF) allows customers to redirect traffic as part of securing cloud-hosted applications. Managing Cloud principles explain that WAFs operate at the application layer and can inspect, filter, allow, block, or redirect HTTP and HTTPS traffic based on defined security rules.
Traffic redirection is commonly used to route suspicious or malicious requests away from protected applications, forward traffic to alternate services, or enforce secure communication paths. WAFs can also integrate with load balancers and content delivery networks to manage traffic flow efficiently while protecting applications from attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and denial-of-service attempts.
The other options do not provide traffic redirection. SIEM systems aggregate and analyze logs, intrusion detection and prevention systems focus on detection and blocking, and cryptographic key management handles encryption keys. Therefore, a web application firewall is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which characteristic of cloud computing refers to sharing physical assets among multiple customers?
- A. Rapid scalability
- B. Resource pooling
- C. On-demand self-service
- D. Measured service
Answer: B
Explanation:
Resource pooling is one of the core characteristics of cloud computing defined by NIST. It refers to the provider's ability to serve multiple customers by dynamically allocating and reallocating computing resources such as storage, processing, memory, and network bandwidth. These resources are abstracted using virtualization, ensuring that customers remain isolated from one another even though they share the same physical assets.
Rapid scalability describes elasticity, on-demand self-service allows users to provision resources without provider intervention, and measured service refers to metering usage. None of these concepts directly describe the multi-tenant model of shared resources.
Resource pooling improves efficiency, reduces costs, and provides flexibility, but it also introduces new security considerations such as data isolation and hypervisor security. Customers must ensure that providers implement strong controls to prevent data leakage or cross-tenant compromise.
NEW QUESTION # 107
Which type of data sanitization should be used to destroy data on a USB thumb drive while keeping the drive intact?
- A. Overwriting
- B. Physical destruction
- C. Degaussing
- D. Key revocation
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct approach for sanitizing a USB thumb drive while preserving its usability isoverwriting.
Overwriting involves replacing the existing data on the device with random data or specific patterns to ensure that the original information cannot be recovered. This process leaves the physical device intact, allowing it to be reused securely.
Physical destruction, such as shredding, renders the device unusable. Degaussing only works on magnetic media like hard disks or tapes, not on solid-state or flash-based USB drives. Key revocation applies to cryptographic keys and not to physical devices.
By using overwriting, organizations comply with data sanitization standards while balancing operational efficiency. Many tools exist that perform multi-pass overwrites to meet regulatory requirements such as those from NIST or ISO. This ensures that sensitive data is removed while allowing the device to remain in circulation for continued use.
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which requirement in the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) is included to protect private data?
- A. Independent auditor
- B. Information security plan
- C. Gap analysis
- D. Limited scope definition
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Information Security Plan is a key requirement of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) designed to protect private customer data. Managing Cloud guidance explains that GLBA requires financial institutions to develop, implement, and maintain a comprehensive written information security program.
This plan must describe administrative, technical, and physical safeguards used to protect customer information. It includes risk assessment, security controls, monitoring, and incident response procedures. The objective is to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive financial data throughout its lifecycle.
The other options are not explicit GLBA requirements. Independent audits and gap analyses may support compliance efforts but are not mandated components. Limited scope definition is not a GLBA safeguard.
Therefore, the information security plan is the correct requirement.
NEW QUESTION # 109
Which risk is assumed by an enterprise that chooses to use vendor-provided cloud resources?
- A. Lack of skilled technical personnel
- B. Multitenant deployments
- C. Loss of certification
- D. Incompatible infrastructure
Answer: B
Explanation:
By choosing vendor-provided cloud resources, an enterprise inherently assumes the risk associated with multitenant deployments. Managing Cloud principles explain that public and some community cloud environments are built on shared infrastructure where multiple customers' workloads coexist on the same physical hardware.
Although strong logical isolation mechanisms are implemented by cloud providers, multitenancy introduces risks such as data leakage, side-channel attacks, and resource contention. These risks do not exist to the same degree in dedicated on-premises environments. Enterprises must therefore rely on the provider's ability to enforce isolation, access control, and monitoring.
The other options are not intrinsic cloud risks. Incompatible infrastructure can be addressed through architecture design, lack of skilled personnel is an internal organizational issue, and loss of certification relates to compliance management. Therefore, multitenant deployments represent the risk assumed when using vendor-provided cloud resources.
NEW QUESTION # 110
A governmental data storage organization plans to relocate its primary North American data center to a new property with larger acreage. Which defense should the organization deploy at this location to prevent vehicles from causing harm to the data center?
- A. Fences
- B. Cameras
- C. Locks
- D. Bollards
Answer: D
Explanation:
Bollardsare physical barriers designed to prevent vehicles from ramming into or breaching secure facilities.
They are often placed at entrances, around perimeters, or in front of critical infrastructure like data centers.
Locks, cameras, and fences provide important physical security, but they cannot stop a high-speed vehicle from causing damage. Cameras record activity, fences create boundaries, and locks secure access points, but only bollards physically block or mitigate vehicle attacks.
Governmental and critical infrastructure sites commonly deploy bollards to protect against both accidental collisions and deliberate vehicle-borne attacks. Combined with layered security measures-such as surveillance and fencing-they enhance resilience against physical threats to sensitive data centers.
NEW QUESTION # 111
Which security strategy is associated with data rights management solutions?
- A. Multilevel aggregation
- B. Persistent protection
- C. Unexpired digital content
- D. Enhanced detail
Answer: B
Explanation:
Persistent protection is the security strategy most closely associated with data rights management (DRM) solutions. Managing Cloud principles explain that DRM is designed to ensure that data remains protected throughout its entire lifecycle, regardless of where it is stored, shared, or accessed.
Persistent protection means that security controls such as access restrictions, usage limitations, and expiration rules stay attached to the data itself. Even if the data is copied, transferred, or moved outside the original system, DRM policies continue to enforce protection. This approach is critical in cloud environments where data frequently moves across platforms, users, and geographic regions.
The other options do not represent DRM strategies. Multilevel aggregation and enhanced detail relate to data processing or analytics concepts, while unexpired digital content describes a content state rather than a security strategy. Therefore, persistent protection correctly represents the security approach used by data rights management solutions.
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which risk mitigation technique will compensate a cloud service customer for failures on the part of the cloud service provider?
- A. Data protection requirements
- B. Suspension of service clause
- C. SLA penalties
- D. Recovery time objective
Answer: C
Explanation:
Service level agreement (SLA) penalties are a risk mitigation technique that compensates customers for failures by the cloud service provider. Managing Cloud principles explain that SLAs define performance commitments such as availability, response time, and reliability.
When a provider fails to meet these commitments, SLA penalties-often in the form of service credits or financial compensation-are applied. While penalties do not prevent failures, they provide accountability and partial financial remediation.
Recovery time objectives define recovery goals, data protection requirements address security controls, and suspension clauses govern service termination. None of these compensate customers directly. Therefore, SLA penalties are the correct mitigation technique.
NEW QUESTION # 113
Which cloud computing characteristic allows consumers to expand or contract required resources automatically?
- A. Rapid elasticity
- B. On-demand self-service
- C. Measured service
- D. Resource pooling
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rapid elasticity is the cloud computing characteristic that allows consumers to automatically expand or contract resources based on demand. Managing Cloud documentation explains that rapid elasticity enables scaling of computing resources in near real time.
This capability allows organizations to handle variable workloads efficiently without manual intervention.
Resources can be provisioned when demand increases and released when demand decreases, optimizing performance and cost.
Measured service focuses on usage tracking, resource pooling shares infrastructure, and on-demand self- service enables user provisioning. Therefore, rapid elasticity is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 114
An organization is planning for an upcoming Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) audit and wants to ensure that only relevant files are included in the audit materials. Which process should the organization use to ensure that the relevant files are identified?
- A. Normalization
- B. Categorization
- C. Anonymization
- D. Tokenization
Answer: B
Explanation:
Categorizationis the process of systematically identifying and classifying files according to content and relevance. In preparation for a PCI DSS audit, it is critical to identify which files fall within scope-those that contain cardholder data or impact its security.
Normalization adjusts data format, tokenization substitutes sensitive data with tokens, and anonymization removes identifiers. While useful, none directly address the task of isolating "relevant files" for audit.
Categorization ensures that files are grouped correctly, allowing auditors to focus on the proper scope and preventing unnecessary exposure of unrelated data.
This step aligns with PCI DSS requirements that limit scope to systems and data directly affecting cardholder data security. Proper categorization streamlines audits and demonstrates effective data governance.
NEW QUESTION # 115
Which security control is a countermeasure against vendor lock-in and lock-out?
- A. Disk redundancy
- B. Offsite backups
- C. Video surveillance
- D. Training programs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Offsite backups are an effective countermeasure against vendor lock-in and lock-out risks. Managing Cloud principles explain that maintaining copies of data outside a single cloud provider reduces dependency and ensures continued access if services become unavailable.
Offsite backups enable organizations to migrate data, recover from provider outages, or exit a provider relationship without losing critical information. This control supports business continuity, portability, and resilience.
Video surveillance addresses physical security, disk redundancy improves availability within the same provider, and training programs improve awareness but do not reduce dependency. Therefore, offsite backups are the correct security control.
NEW QUESTION # 116
An organization is reviewing a contract from a cloud service provider and wants to ensure that all aspects of the contract are adhered to by the cloud service provider. Which control will allow the organization to verify that the cloud provider is meeting its obligations?
- A. Regulatory oversight
- B. Incident management
- C. Confidential computing
- D. Continuous monitoring
Answer: D
Explanation:
Continuous monitoring is the control that allows organizations to actively verify that a cloud provider is fulfilling contractual and compliance obligations. This involves automated collection and analysis of operational, security, and performance data. It enables organizations to ensure that service-level agreements (SLAs) are being honored and that compliance requirements are being met in real time.
While regulatory oversight is provided by external authorities and incident management is reactive in nature, continuous monitoring is a proactive approach. It allows customers to maintain visibility into provider operations. Confidential computing focuses on data protection but does not verify contract adherence.
By employing continuous monitoring, organizations establish transparency and accountability. It also supports audit processes by providing evidence that controls remain effective over time. This reduces risk associated with outsourcing critical functions to a cloud provider and ensures resilience against potential provider-side failures.
NEW QUESTION # 117
An accountant in an organization is allowed access to a company's human resources database only to adjust the number of hours that the organization's employees have worked in a fiscal year. However, the accountant modifies an employee's personal information. Which part of the STRIDE model describes this situation?
- A. Tampering
- B. Elevation of privilege
- C. Denial of service
- D. Spoofing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The STRIDE threat model identifies six categories: Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, and Elevation of privilege. In this scenario, the accountant modified data they were not authorized to change. This is an act ofTampering, which refers to unauthorized alteration of data or systems.
Spoofing would involve impersonating another identity, denial of service would block availability, and elevation of privilege would involve gaining higher access rights. The accountant already had legitimate access but misused it to alter data outside their scope of responsibility.
Tampering compromises data integrity, one of the pillars of the CIA triad. In cloud and enterprise systems, safeguards against tampering include role-based access control, least privilege, and auditing to detect unauthorized changes. Recognizing this as tampering helps in identifying insider misuse and implementing compensating controls.
NEW QUESTION # 118
Which jurisdictional protection factor should be known if personally identifiable information (PII) is to be stored in the cloud?
- A. Jurisdictional location of data
- B. Physical location of load balancer
- C. Physical location of the web application firewall (WAF)
- D. Jurisdictional location of availability zone
Answer: A
Explanation:
When storing personally identifiable information (PII) in the cloud, the jurisdictional location of the data must be clearly understood. Managing Cloud principles emphasize that data is subject to the laws and regulations of the country or region where it is physically stored.
Different jurisdictions impose varying requirements for data protection, privacy, access, and disclosure.
Knowing where data resides allows organizations to assess legal obligations, compliance requirements, and potential risks associated with government access or cross-border data transfers.
The physical location of infrastructure components such as firewalls or load balancers does not determine legal jurisdiction over stored data. Availability zones may exist within a region but do not define jurisdiction independently. Therefore, the jurisdictional location of the data itself is the critical factor.
NEW QUESTION # 119
Which security concept requires continuous identity and authorization checks to allow access to data?
- A. Secret management
- B. Intrusion prevention
- C. Traffic inspection
- D. Zero trust
Answer: D
Explanation:
TheZero Trustsecurity model assumes that no user, device, or application should be trusted by default, whether inside or outside the network perimeter. Every access request must be continuously verified using strict identity, authorization, and context-based checks.
Unlike traditional perimeter security, Zero Trust emphasizes the principle of "never trust, always verify." Traffic inspection looks at data packets, intrusion prevention identifies malicious activity, and secret management safeguards sensitive keys and credentials. None of these approaches enforce constant, adaptive identity verification the way Zero Trust does.
By adopting Zero Trust, organizations ensure that access is not granted simply because a user is "inside" the network. Instead, continuous checks evaluate credentials, device posture, location, and other risk factors. This significantly reduces the risk of insider threats, credential theft, and lateral movement within cloud environments.
NEW QUESTION # 120
Which phase of the cloud data life cycle involves the process of crypto-shredding?
- A. Store
- B. Create
- C. Destroy
- D. Archive
Answer: C
Explanation:
TheDestroyphase of the cloud data life cycle is where information is permanently removed from systems. A common technique in cloud environments for this phase iscrypto-shredding(or cryptographic erasure).
Rather than physically destroying the media, crypto-shredding involves deleting or revoking encryption keys used to protect the data. Once those keys are destroyed, the encrypted data becomes mathematically unrecoverable, even if the underlying storage media remains intact.
This method is particularly useful in cloud environments where storage is virtualized and hardware cannot easily be physically destroyed. Crypto-shredding provides compliance-friendly assurance that sensitive data such as personally identifiable information (PII), financial data, or healthcare records cannot be accessed after retention periods expire or contractual obligations end.
By incorporating crypto-shredding into theDestroyphase, organizations align with standards forsecure data sanitization. This ensures legal defensibility during audits and e-discovery and demonstrates proper lifecycle governance. The emphasis is on making data inaccessible while still maintaining operational efficiency and environmental responsibility.
NEW QUESTION # 121
Which approach helps prepare for common application vulnerabilities that developers are likely to encounter when working with cloud applications?
- A. Sandboxing
- B. Multitenancy
- C. Threat modeling
- D. Application virtualization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Threat modeling is the approach that helps developers prepare for common application vulnerabilities in cloud environments. Managing Cloud principles explain that threat modeling is a proactive security activity performed during the design and development phases of an application.
This approach involves identifying potential threats, attack vectors, and weaknesses based on application architecture, data flows, trust boundaries, and usage patterns. By anticipating how attackers may exploit cloud- specific characteristics-such as exposed APIs, shared resources, and identity-based access-developers can design controls to mitigate risks early in the lifecycle.
Sandboxing and application virtualization are isolation techniques rather than preparation methods, and multitenancy describes a cloud architecture characteristic. Threat modeling directly supports secure design by aligning security controls with known vulnerability patterns. Therefore, threat modeling is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 122
A business wants to avoid buying physical hardware and wants to host a PCI DSS-compliant application using the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) model of a public cloud provider. Which method can be used to provide network monitoring security controls in this environment?
- A. Cloud service provider audit logs
- B. Host agent intrusion detection system
- C. Redundant network firewalls
- D. Sniffed network ports
Answer: B
Explanation:
A host-based agent intrusion detection system (IDS) can be used to provide network monitoring security controls in an IaaS public cloud environment. Managing Cloud principles explain that customers do not control physical network infrastructure in public cloud environments, making traditional network taps or sniffed ports impractical.
Host-based IDS agents monitor traffic, processes, and system activity directly on virtual machines. This approach aligns with PCI DSS requirements by providing visibility into network activity, intrusion attempts, and policy violations without requiring physical hardware.
CSP audit logs provide limited visibility, and redundant firewalls focus on traffic control rather than monitoring. Sniffed network ports require physical access. Therefore, a host-based IDS is the correct solution.
NEW QUESTION # 123
Which logical consideration should be addressed when planning the design of a data center?
- A. Ability for expansion
- B. Heating and cooling
- C. Utility power availability
- D. Multitenancy of networks
Answer: D
Explanation:
Multitenancy of networks is a logical design consideration when planning a data center. Managing Cloud principles explain that logical considerations focus on how systems, networks, and services are structured and interact, rather than physical infrastructure components.
Multitenancy requires logical separation of tenants to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data.
This includes network segmentation, virtual LANs, access controls, and isolation mechanisms that prevent one tenant from accessing another tenant's resources. Proper logical design is critical in cloud environments where multiple customers share the same physical infrastructure.
The other options represent non-logical considerations. Heating and cooling and utility power availability are physical and environmental concerns, while ability for expansion relates to physical capacity planning.
Therefore, multitenancy of networks is the correct logical consideration.
NEW QUESTION # 124
A warning system identifies an impending disaster. When should failover occur to ensure continuity of operations?
- A. Prior to the resumption of normal activities
- B. During the crisis event
- C. During the resumption of normal activities
- D. Prior to the crisis event
Answer: D
Explanation:
Failover should occur prior to the crisis event when an impending disaster is identified. Managing Cloud principles explain that proactive failover allows organizations to maintain service continuity by transitioning operations to alternate systems before disruption occurs.
Early failover reduces downtime, minimizes data loss, and avoids the risks associated with reactive responses during an active crisis. Cloud environments support automated or planned failover mechanisms that can be triggered by warning systems, ensuring seamless continuity.
Failover during or after the crisis increases the likelihood of service interruption. Therefore, initiating failover before the event is the correct approach.
NEW QUESTION # 125
Which action should be taken to ensure that unencrypted network traffic is protected?
- A. Data should be transmitted after it is compressed and password protected using gunzip (GZ).
- B. Data should be transmitted using the transport layer security (TLS) protocol.
- C. Data should be transmitted using generic routing encapsulation (GRE).
- D. Data should be transmitted using the secure socket layer (SSL) protocol.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most effective way to protect network traffic from interception isTransport Layer Security (TLS). TLS provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication by encrypting data as it travels between client and server. Unlike older protocols like SSL, which is now deprecated due to vulnerabilities, TLS is the industry- standard protocol endorsed by modern security frameworks.
Compression and password protection through GZ is not a reliable method, as it does not offer strong encryption or resistance against sophisticated interception attacks. GRE is a tunneling protocol and does not inherently provide encryption.
By implementing TLS, organizations ensure protection against on-path attacks, replay attacks, and packet sniffing. TLS also supports features such as forward secrecy and certificate-based authentication, ensuring both secure data transmission and mutual trust between endpoints. In compliance-driven industries like healthcare and finance, TLS is explicitly mandated for protecting sensitive information in transit.
NEW QUESTION # 126
An organization is concerned that it will be unable to recover or access data if the cloud provider goes into bankruptcy and leaves the market. How is this concern addressed in a business continuity and disaster recovery plan?
- A. Consider options for portability and interoperability
- B. Use best tools to securely connect to the cloud
- C. Revise contractual and personnel obligations
- D. Enable multiple zones to mitigate service disruptions
Answer: A
Explanation:
This concern is addressed by considering portability and interoperability options. Managing Cloud guidance explains that organizations must plan for provider exit scenarios to avoid dependency risks.
Portability ensures data and workloads can be moved to another provider or on-premises environment, while interoperability supports compatibility across platforms. This may include standardized data formats, documented APIs, and offsite backups.
Multiple zones address outages, not provider bankruptcy. Contract revisions help legally but do not guarantee recovery. Therefore, portability and interoperability are the correct focus.
NEW QUESTION # 127
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