[Jun 03, 2026] 300-740 Free Exam Questions with Quality Guaranteed [Q86-Q111]

Share

[Jun 03, 2026] 300-740 Free Exam Questions with Quality Guaranteed

 300-740 Free Exam Files Downloaded Instantly

NEW QUESTION # 86

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must analyze a segmentation policy in Cisco Secure Workload. What is the result of applying the policy?

  • A. The explicit deny all rule is applied.
  • B. HR cannot use Telnet to connect to IT by using Rule #2.
  • C. HR can use Telnet to connect to IT by using Rule #1.
  • D. The default catch-all rule is applied by using Rule #3.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The policy includes three rules under the Apps scope. Rule #1 allows HR to communicate with IT on TCP port 23 (Telnet), but it is marked as "Default." Rule #2 denies the same HR-to-IT Telnet traffic and is marked as "Absolute," which takes precedence over any default rule. In Cisco Secure Workload (Tetration), an
"Absolute" rule will override both "Default" and inherited rules. Therefore, even though there's an allow in Rule #1, the deny in Rule #2 prevents HR from using Telnet to connect to IT.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 5:
Visibility and Assurance, Pages 95-98.


NEW QUESTION # 87
Advanced app control policies are implemented to:

  • A. Allow all applications equally without any restrictions
  • B. Limit the bandwidth usage of applications
  • C. Distinguish between and control individual application actions
  • D. Increase the speed of cloud applications

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following are benefits of implementing cloud security policies for hybrid and multicloud environments?

  • A. Improved compliance with regulatory requirements
  • B. Increased complexity in management
  • C. Enhanced agility and scalability
  • D. Enhanced data sovereignty and privacy

Answer: A,C,D


NEW QUESTION # 89
The final step in handling a security incident, after containment and remediation, is to _________ the affected systems or applications to their normal state.

  • A. dismantle
  • B. reinstantiate
  • C. abandon
  • D. quarantine

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 90
Security services edge (SSE) combines which of the following services for enhanced security at the network edge?

  • A. Secure Web Gateway (SWG)
  • B. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
  • C. Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)
  • D. Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA)

Answer: A,C,D


NEW QUESTION # 91
When choosing a Web Application Firewall (WAF), it is important to consider its ability to:

  • A. Only protect against DDoS attacks
  • B. Replace traditional network firewalls
  • C. Serve as the only layer of security for web applications
  • D. Defend against a wide range of web application attacks, such as SQL injection and XSS

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 92
Which attack mitigation must be in place to prevent an attacker from authenticating to a service using a brute force attack?

  • A. Use of multifactor authentication for all accounts
  • B. Use of a password manager
  • C. Forced password change every 6 months
  • D. Use of a 100 ms delay between each authentication

Answer: A

Explanation:
Multifactor Authentication (MFA) is one of the most effective mitigations against brute-force attacks. Even if an attacker guesses or steals a user's password, they would still need a second authentication factor (e.g., push notification, hardware token, biometric verification) to complete login.
SCAZT Section 2: User and Device Security (Pages 40-43) emphasizes the importance of MFA in protecting identities from password spraying, credential stuffing, and brute-force attacks.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 2, Pages 40-43


NEW QUESTION # 93
Cloud (hybrid and multicloud) platform security policies should consider:

  • A. The specific security features and controls offered by third-party providers
  • B. Ignoring encryption to enhance performance
  • C. The physical location of servers only
  • D. Using a single cloud provider for all needs

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 94
Which of the following are purposes of URL filtering in controlling access to cloud applications?

  • A. To monitor employee productivity
  • B. To block access to unauthorized web content
  • C. To increase internet speed
  • D. To prevent access to malicious websites

Answer: B,D


NEW QUESTION # 95
What does the Cisco Telemetry Broker provide for telemetry data?

  • A. Data brokering
  • B. Data analytics
  • C. Data mining
  • D. Data filtering

Answer: D

Explanation:
Cisco Telemetry Broker (CTB) is designed to act as an intermediary that filters, enriches, and routes telemetry data-such as NetFlow, Syslog, and SNMP-across various tools. It optimizes resource usage by preventing overload and ensures only relevant telemetry is forwarded to appropriate analytics platforms.
The SCAZT guide (Section 5: Visibility and Assurance, Pages 93-95) describes CTB's role in applying filters and transformations to raw telemetry data to enhance visibility and reduce noise.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 5, Pages 93-95


NEW QUESTION # 96
Web Application Firewalls (WAFs) protect against DDoS attacks by:

  • A. Removing SSL encryption
  • B. Decreasing server resources
  • C. Inspecting incoming traffic and filtering out malicious requests
  • D. Slowing down the application response time

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 97
To implement user and device trust in web applications, SAML authentication configures _________ for secure access.

  • A. identity certificates
  • B. biometric data
  • C. password policies
  • D. SAML assertions

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 98
For a cloud service provider, security policies based on application connectivity requirements might include:

  • A. Disabling encryption to enhance performance
  • B. Using a single set of security policies for all types of applications
  • C. Implementing secure VPN connections for sensitive applications
  • D. Always allowing direct connections to the internet for all applications

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 99
The purpose of reporting a cybersecurity incident includes:

  • A. Causing unnecessary panic
  • B. Ensuring that all stakeholders are informed and necessary legal requirements are met
  • C. Decreasing transparency within the organization
  • D. Sharing sensitive details with the public

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 100
Security audit reports are used to:

  • A. Determine the effectiveness of existing security policies and identify areas for improvement
  • B. Justify the removal of all security measures
  • C. Increase the complexity of security infrastructure
  • D. Decrease organizational transparency

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 101
To analyze application dependencies effectively, it is important to use tools like:

  • A. Non-technical assessments without data analysis
  • B. Cisco Secure Workload for dynamic security policy enforcement
  • C. Both A and B
  • D. Firewalls logs for monitoring application traffic

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 102
Multifactor authentication typically requires something you know, something you have, and something you _________.

  • A. forget
  • B. encrypt
  • C. delete
  • D. are

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 103
Which component of the Cisco Security Reference Architecture focuses on identifying and analyzing threats?

  • A. Network security
  • B. User/device security
  • C. Threat intelligence
  • D. Security operations toolset

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 104
In the context of threat response, "reinstantiate" primarily means:

  • A. Maintaining the compromised state for forensic analysis
  • B. Restoring services or applications to their operational state after a security incident
  • C. Permanently disabling compromised accounts
  • D. Ignoring the incident after containment

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 105
To allow users a seamless and secure login experience across multiple applications, many organizations configure _________ using an identity provider connection.

  • A. SAML/SSO
  • B. firewalls
  • C. VPNs
  • D. antivirus software

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 106
What does the MITRE ATT&CK framework catalog?

  • A. Standards for information security management
  • B. Techniques utilized in cyber attacks
  • C. Patterns of system vulnerabilities
  • D. Models of threat intelligence sharing

Answer: B

Explanation:
MITRE ATT&CK is a globally accessible knowledge base that catalogs adversarial tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. According to SCAZT Section 6: Threat Response (Page
113), this framework enables security professionals to map and anticipate adversarial behavior throughout the attack lifecycle. It supports threat modeling, detection engineering, and incident response.
Reference: Designing and Implementing Secure Cloud Access for Users and Endpoints (SCAZT), Section 6, Page 113


NEW QUESTION # 107
When determining security policies for application enforcement, which of the following is a key consideration?

  • A. The programming language used to develop the application
  • B. The sensitivity of the data being accessed or stored by the application
  • C. The popularity of the application among users
  • D. The color scheme of the application interface

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 108
Implementing _________ via identity certificates is a secure method to verify the identities of users and devices accessing network resources.

  • A. user and device authentication
  • B. data encryption
  • C. endpoint protection
  • D. network segmentation

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 109
In the context of cloud security, NIST framework primarily provides:

  • A. Standards and guidelines for cybersecurity practices
  • B. Physical security guidelines
  • C. Network performance metrics
  • D. Data encryption algorithms

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 110
Cloud security attack tactics often include:

  • A. Enhancing cloud service offerings
  • B. Exploiting misconfigured cloud storage
  • C. Social media marketing strategies
  • D. Physical security breaches

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 111
......


Cisco 300-740 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Application and Data Security This section of the exam measures skills of Cloud Security Analysts and explores how to defend applications and data from cyber threats. It introduces the MITRE ATT&CK framework, explains cloud attack patterns, and discusses mitigation strategies. Additionally, it covers web application firewall functions, lateral movement prevention, microsegmentation, and creating policies for secure application connectivity in multicloud environments.
Topic 2
  • Integrated Architecture Use Cases: This section of the exam measures the skills of Cloud Solution Architects and covers key capabilities within an integrated cloud security architecture. It focuses on ensuring common identity across platforms, setting multicloud policies, integrating secure access service edge (SASE), and implementing zero-trust network access models for more resilient cloud environments.
Topic 3
  • Threat Response: This section of the exam measures skills of Incident Response Engineers and focuses on responding to threats through automation and data analysis. It covers how to act based on telemetry and audit reports, manage user or application compromises, and implement response steps such as containment, reporting, remediation, and reinstating services securely.
Topic 4
  • Cloud Security Architecture: This section of the exam measures the skills of Cloud Security Architects and covers the fundamental components of the Cisco Security Reference Architecture. It introduces the role of threat intelligence in identifying and mitigating risks, the use of security operations tools for monitoring and response, and the mechanisms of user and device protection. It also includes strategies for securing cloud and on-premise networks, as well as safeguarding applications, workloads, and data across environments.
Topic 5
  • Industry Security Frameworks: This section of the exam measures the skills of Cybersecurity Governance Professionals and introduces major industry frameworks such as NIST, CISA, and DISA. These frameworks guide best practices and compliance in designing secure systems and managing cloud environments responsibly.
Topic 6
  • SAFE Key Structure: This section of the exam measures skills of Network Security Designers and focuses on the SAFE framework's key structural elements. It includes understanding ‘Places in the Network’—the different network zones—and defining ‘Secure Domains’ to organize security policy implementation effectively.

 

Q&As with Explanations Verified & Correct Answers: https://www.prep4sureguide.com/300-740-prep4sure-exam-guide.html

Practice Exams and Training Solutions for Certifications: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1YP0A07tkwPJO6rQ7t1QJgrRZFz0jPG-n