Dec-2025 Pass ISC CCSP Exam in First Attempt Easily
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ISC CCSP Certification Exam is a computer-based exam consisting of 125 multiple-choice questions. Candidates have four hours to complete the exam, and a passing score of 700 out of 1000 is required to earn the certification. CCSP exam is available in English, Japanese, and Portuguese.
The demand for cloud security professionals has grown rapidly in recent years, as more and more organizations move to the cloud. The CCSP certification is an excellent way for professionals to validate their expertise in this field and distinguish themselves from their peers. It is also a great way for organizations to ensure that their employees have the necessary knowledge and skills to secure their cloud environments.
NEW QUESTION # 223
For optimal security, trust zones are used for network segmentation and isolation. They allow for the separation of various systems and tiers, each with its own security level.
Which of the following is typically used to allow administrative personnel access to trust zones?
- A. IPSec
- B. VPN
- C. SSH
- D. TLS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Virtual private networks (VPNs) are used to provide administrative personnel with secure communication channels through security systems and into trust zones. They allow staff who perform system administration tasks to have access to ports and systems that are not allowed from the public Internet.
IPSec is an encryption protocol for point-to-point communications at the network level, and may be used within a trust zone but not to give access into a trust zone. TLS enables encryption of communications between systems and services and would likely be used to secure the VPN communications, but it does not represent the overall concept being asked for in the question. SSH allows for secure shell access to systems, but not for general access into trust zones.
NEW QUESTION # 224
The BIA can be used to provide information about all the following, except:
Response:
- A. Secure acquisition
- B. Selection of security controls
- C. BC/DR planning
- D. Risk analysis
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 225
What is a serious complication an organization faces from the compliance perspective with international operations?
- A. Multiple jurisdictions
- B. Different operational procedures
- C. Different certifications
- D. Different capabilities
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When operating within a global framework, a security professional runs into a multitude of jurisdictions and requirements, which often may not be clearly applicable or may be in contention with each other. These requirements can involve the location of the users and the type of data they enter into systems, the laws governing the organization that owns the application and any regulatory requirements they may have, and finally the appropriate laws and regulations for the jurisdiction housing the IT resources and where the data is actually stored, which may be multiple jurisdictions as well. Different certifications would not come into play as a challenge because the major IT and data center certifications are international and would apply to any cloud provider. Different capabilities and different operational procedures would be mitigated by the organization's selection of a cloud provider and would not be a challenge if an appropriate provider was chosen, regardless of location.
NEW QUESTION # 226
Countermeasures for protecting cloud operations against internal threats include all of the following except:
- A. Hardened perimeter devices
- B. Aggressive background checks
- C. Extensive and comprehensive training programs, including initial, recurring, and refresher sessions
- D. Skills and knowledge testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Hardened perimeter devices are more useful at attenuating the risk of external attack.
NEW QUESTION # 227
Which of the following aspects of cloud computing would make it more likely that a cloud provider would be unwilling to satisfy specific certification requirements?
- A. Multitenancy
- B. Regulation
- C. Resource pooling
- D. Virtualization
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
With cloud providers hosting a number of different customers, it would be impractical for them to pursue additional certifications based on the needs of a specific customer. Cloud environments are built to a common denominator to serve the greatest number of customers. Especially within a public cloud model, it is not possible or practical for a cloud provider to alter its services for specific customer demands. Resource pooling and virtualization within a cloud environment would be the same for all customers, and would not impact certifications that a cloud provider might be willing to pursue. Regulations would form the basis for certification problems and would be a reason for a cloud provider to pursue specific certifications to meet customer requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 228
With IaaS, what is responsible for handling the security and control over the volume storage space?
- A. Hypervisor
- B. Operating system
- C. Management plane
- D. Application
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation:
Volume storage is allocated via a LUN to a system and then treated the same as any traditional storage. The operating system is responsible for formatting and securing volume storage as well as controlling all access to it. Applications, although they may use volume storage and have permissions to write to it, are not responsible for its formatting and security. Both a hypervisor and the management plane are outside of an individual system and are not responsible for managing the files and storage within that system.
NEW QUESTION # 229
Which of the following threats from the OWASP Top Ten is the most difficult for an organization to protect against?
Response:
- A. Account hijacking
- B. Denial of service
- C. Advanced persistent threats
- D. Malicious insiders
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 230
What concept does the "D" represent with the STRIDE threat model?
- A. Denial of service
- B. Data loss
- C. Distributed
- D. Data breach
Answer: A
Explanation:
Any application can be a possible target of denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. From the application side, the developers should minimize how many operations are performed for non-authenticated users. This will keep the application running as quickly as possible and using the least amount of system resources to help minimize the impact of any such attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 231
Which phase of the cloud data lifecycle would be the MOST appropriate for the use of DLP technologies to protect the data?
- A. Create
- B. Store
- C. Use
- D. Share
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
During the share phase, data is allowed to leave the application for consumption by other vendors, systems, or services. At this point, as the data is leaving the security controls of the application, the use of DLP technologies is appropriate to control how the data is used or to force expiration. During the use, create, and store phases, traditional security controls are available and are more appropriate because the data is still internal to the application.
NEW QUESTION # 232
What process is used within a cloud environment to maintain resource balancing and ensure that resources are available where and when needed?
- A. Dynamic resource scheduling
- B. Dynamic clustering
- C. Dynamic optimization
- D. Dynamic balancing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Dynamic optimization is the process through which the cloud environment is constantly maintained to ensure resources are available when and where needed, and that physical nodes do not become overloaded or near capacity, while others are underutilized.
NEW QUESTION # 233
Data labels could include all the following, except:
- A. Confidentiality level
- B. Multifactor authentication
- C. Distribution limitations
- D. Access restrictions
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 234
BCDR strategies typically do not involve the entire operations of an organization, but only those deemed critical to their business.
Which concept pertains to the amount of data and services needed to reach the predetermined level of operations?
- A. RTO
- B. RSL
- C. SRE
- D. RPO
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The recovery point objective (RPO) sets and defines the amount of data an organization must have available or accessible to reach the predetermined level of operations necessary during a BCDR situation. The recovery time objective (RTO) measures the amount of time necessary to recover operations to meet the BCDR plan.
The recovery service level (RSL) measures the percentage of operations that would be recovered during a BCDR situation. SRE is provided as an erroneous response.
NEW QUESTION # 235
An audit scope statement defines the limits and outcomes from an audit.
Which of the following would NOT be included as part of an audit scope statement?
- A. Certification
- B. Billing
- C. Reports
- D. Exclusions
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Billing for an audit, or other cost-related items, would not be part of an audit scope statement and would instead be handled prior to the actual audit as part of the contract between the organization and auditors.
Reports, exclusions to the scope of the audit, and required certifications on behalf of the systems or auditors are all crucial elements of an audit scope statement.
NEW QUESTION # 236
With software-defined networking, what aspect of networking is abstracted from the forwarding of traffic?
- A. Filtering
- B. Firewalling
- C. Routing
- D. Session
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
With software-defined networking (SDN), the filtering of network traffic is separated from the forwarding of network traffic so that it can be independently administered.
NEW QUESTION # 237
Which of the following threat types involves an application that does not validate authorization for portions of itself after the initial checks?
- A. Missing function-level access control
- B. Cross-site scripting
- C. Injection
- D. Cross-site request forgery
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is imperative that an application perform checks when each function or portion of the application is accessed, to ensure that the user is properly authorized to access it. Without continual checks each time a function is accessed, an attacker could forge requests to access portions of the application where authorization has not been granted.
NEW QUESTION # 238
Which of the following service capabilities gives the cloud customer the most control over resources and configurations?
- A. Platform
- B. Software
- C. Desktop
- D. Infrastructure
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The infrastructure service capability gives the cloud customer substantial control in provisioning and configuring resources, including processing, storage, and network resources.
NEW QUESTION # 239
Because PaaS implementations are so often used for software development, what is one of the vulnerabilities that should always be kept in mind?
Response:
- A. Backdoors
- B. DoS/DDoS
- C. Loss/theft of portable devices
- D. Malware
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 240
What type of masking strategy involves replacing data on a system while it passes between the data and application layers?
- A. Dynamic
- B. Replication
- C. Static
- D. Duplication
Answer: A
Explanation:
With dynamic masking, production environments are protected with the masking process being implemented between the application and data layers of the application. This allows for a masking translation to take place live in the system and during normal application processing of data.
NEW QUESTION # 241
Which cloud service category most commonly uses client-side key management systems?
- A. Infrastructure as a Service
- B. Software as a Service
- C. Platform as a Service
- D. Desktop as a Service
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
SaaS most commonly uses client-side key management. With this type of implementation, the software for doing key management is supplied by the cloud provider, but is hosted and run by the cloud customer. This allows for full integration with the SaaS implementation, but also provides full control to the cloud customer.
Although the cloud provider may offer software for performing key management to the cloud customers, with the Infrastructure, Platform, and Desktop as a Service categories, the customers would largely be responsible for their own options and implementations and would not be bound by the offerings from the cloud provider.
NEW QUESTION # 242
Which of the following threat types involves leveraging a user's browser to send untrusted data to be executed with legitimate access via the user's valid credentials?
- A. Missing function-level access control
- B. Cross-site scripting
- C. Cross-site request forgery
- D. Injection
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
ExplanationCross-site scripting (XSS) is an attack where a malicious actor is able to send untrusted data to a user's browser without going through any validation or sanitization processes, or perhaps the code is not properly escaped from processing by the browser. The code is then executed on the user's browser with their own access and permissions, allowing the attacker to redirect the user's web traffic, steal data from their session, or potentially access information on the user's own computer that their browser has the ability to access. Missing function-level access control exists where an application only checks for authorization during the initial login process and does not further validate with each function call. An injection attack is where a malicious actor sends commands or other arbitrary data through input and data fields with the intent of having the application or system execute the code as part of its normal processing and queries. Cross-site request forgery occurs when an attack forces an authenticated user to send forged requests to an application running under their own access and credentials.
NEW QUESTION # 243
Which of the following is NOT a component of access control?
- A. Accounting
- B. Federation
- C. Authorization
- D. Authentication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Federation is not a component of access control. Instead, it is used to allow users possessing credentials from other authorities and systems to access services outside of their domain. This allows for access and trust without the need to create additional, local credentials. Access control encompasses not only the key concepts of authorization and authentication, but also accounting. Accounting consists of collecting and maintaining logs for both authentication and authorization for operational and regulatory requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 244
What type of segregation and separation of resources is needed within a cloud environment for multitenancy purposes versus a traditional data center model?
- A. Physical
- B. Logical
- C. Security
- D. Virtual
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud environments lack the ability to physically separate resources like a traditional data center can. To compensate, cloud computing logical segregation concepts are employed. These include VLANs, sandboxing, and the use of virtual network devices such as firewalls.
NEW QUESTION # 245
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