Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Dumps with Free 365 Days Update Fast Exam Updates [Q38-Q53]

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Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Dumps with Free 365 Days Update Fast Exam Updates

Verified Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate dumps Q&As - 2024 Latest Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Download

NEW QUESTION # 38
Which control mechanism is used to detect the unauthorized modification of key configuration settings?

  • A. URL filtering
  • B. File integrity
  • C. Whitelisting
  • D. Sandboxing

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The control mechanism that is used to detect the unauthorized modification of key configuration settings is file integrity. File integrity is the property of ensuring that files are not altered or corrupted by unauthorized users or processes. File integrity can be monitored by using tools that compare the current state of files with a baseline or checksum and alert on any changes.


NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is a feature of a stateful inspection firewall?

  • A. It tracks the destination IP address of each packet that leaves the organization's internal network.
  • B. It translates the MAC address to the destination IP address of each packet that enters the organization's internal network.
  • C. It is capable of detecting and blocking sophisticated attacks
  • D. It prevents any attack initiated and originated by an insider.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
A feature of a stateful inspection firewall is that it is capable of detecting and blocking sophisticated attacks. A stateful inspection firewall is a type of firewall that monitors and analyzes the state and context of network traffic. It keeps track of the source, destination, protocol, port, and session information of each packet and compares it with a set of predefined rules. A stateful inspection firewall can detect and block attacks that exploit the logic or behavior of network protocols or applications, such as fragmentation attacks, session hijacking, or application-layer attacks.


NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is a feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS)?

  • A. Automated response
  • B. Intrusion prevention
  • C. Interface with firewalls
  • D. Back doors into applications

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
A feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS) is automated response. This is because an IDS is a system that monitors network or system activities for malicious or anomalous behavior, and alerts or reports on any detected incidents. An IDS can also perform automated response actions, such as blocking traffic, terminating sessions, or sending notifications, to contain or mitigate the incidents. The other options are not features of an IDS, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to intrusion detection or prevention, such as intrusion prevention (A), interface with firewalls C, or back doors into applications (D).


NEW QUESTION # 41
Using a data loss prevention (DLP) solution to monitor data saved to a USB memory device is an example of managing:

  • A. data redundancy.
  • B. data in use.
  • C. data availability.
  • D. data at rest.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Using a data loss prevention (DLP) solution to monitor data saved to a USB memory device is an example of managing data at rest. Data at rest is data that is stored on a device or media, such as hard disks, flash drives, tapes, or CDs. Data at rest can be exposed to unauthorized access, theft, or loss if not properly protected. A DLP solution is a tool that monitors and controls the movement and usage of data across an organization's network or endpoints. A DLP solution can prevent users from saving sensitive data to removable devices or alert on any violations of data policies.


NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following would provide the BEST basis for allocating proportional protection activities when comprehensive classification is not feasible?

  • A. Comprehensive cyber insurance procurement
  • B. Business dependency assessment
  • C. Single classification level allocation
  • D. Business process re-engineering

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST basis for allocating proportional protection activities when comprehensive classification is not feasible is a business dependency assessment. This is because a business dependency assessment helps to identify the criticality and sensitivity of business processes and their supporting assets, based on their contribution to the organization's objectives and value proposition. This allows for prioritizing protection activities according to the level of risk and impact. The other options are not as effective as a business dependency assessment, because they either use a single classification level allocation (A), which does not account for different levels of risk and impact; require a significant amount of time and resources to perform a business process re-engineering (B); or rely on external parties to cover potential losses without reducing the likelihood or impact of incidents (D).


NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following BEST characterizes security mechanisms for mobile devices?

  • A. Inadequate for organizational use
  • B. Configurable and reliable across device types
  • C. Comparatively weak relative to workstations
  • D. Easy to control through mobile device management

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST characteristic that describes security mechanisms for mobile devices is easy to control through mobile device management. This is because mobile device management is a technique that allows organizations to centrally manage and secure mobile devices, such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, etc., that are used by their employees or customers. Mobile device management helps to enforce security policies, configure settings, install applications, monitor usage, wipe data, etc., on mobile devices remotely and efficiently. The other options are not characteristics that describe security mechanisms for mobile devices, but rather different aspects or factors that affect security mechanisms for mobile devices, such as weakness (B), inadequacy C, or reliability (D).


NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss?

  • A. Backups of information are regularly tested.
  • B. full data backup is performed daily.
  • C. The recovery plan is executed during or after an event
  • D. Data backups are available onsite for recovery.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The feature that provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss is that backups of information are regularly tested. This is because testing backups helps to ensure that they are valid, complete, and usable, and that they can be restored within the expected time frame and without errors or corruption. Testing backups also helps to identify and resolve any issues or problems with the backup process, media, or software. The other options are not features that provide the greatest assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss, but rather different aspects or factors that affect the backup process, such as availability (B), execution C, or frequency (D) of backups.


NEW QUESTION # 45
When reviewing user management roles, which of the following groups presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions?

  • A. Terminated employees
  • B. Contractors
  • C. Database administrators
  • D. Privileged users

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
When reviewing user management roles, the group that presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions is privileged users. This is because privileged users are users who have elevated or special access rights or permissions to systems or resources, such as administrators, superusers, root users, etc. Privileged users present the greatest risk based on their permissions, because they can perform actions or operations that can affect the security, availability, or functionality of systems or resources, such as installing or uninstalling software, modifying or deleting files, granting or revoking access rights, etc. Privileged users can also abuse or misuse their permissions for malicious or unauthorized purposes, such as stealing or leaking sensitive data, sabotaging systems or services, bypassing security controls, etc. The other options are not groups that present the greatest risk based on their permissions, but rather different types of users that may have different levels of access rights or permissions to systems or resources, such as database administrators (B), terminated employees C, or contractors (D).


NEW QUESTION # 46
What is the MAIN consideration when storing backup files?

  • A. Protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access
  • B. Storing copies on-site for ease of access during incident response
  • C. Storing backup files on public cloud storage
  • D. Utilizing solid slate device (SSDJ media for quick recovery

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The MAIN consideration when storing backup files is protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access. This is because protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access helps to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the backup data, and prevent any unauthorized or malicious disclosure, modification, or deletion of the backup data. Protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access also helps to comply with any regulatory or contractual requirements that may apply to the backup data. The other options are not the main consideration when storing backup files, but rather different aspects or factors that affect the backup process, such as using solid state device (SSD) media (A), storing backup files on public cloud storage (B), or storing copies on-site (D).


NEW QUESTION # 47
What is the FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments?

  • A. Evaluation of implementation details
  • B. Hands-on testing
  • C. Inventory and discovery
  • D. Hand-based shakeout

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments is inventory and discovery. This is because the inventory and discovery phase helps auditors to identify and document the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit, as well as the cryptographic assets, systems, processes, and stakeholders involved in the cryptographic environment. The inventory and discovery phase also helps auditors to assess the maturity and effectiveness of the cryptographic governance and management within the organization. The other phases are not the first phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments, but rather follow after the inventory and discovery phase, such as evaluation of implementation details (A), hands-on testing (B), or risk-based shakeout C.


NEW QUESTION # 48
A data loss prevention (DLP) program helps protect an organization from:

  • A. crypto ransomware infection.
  • B. exfiltration of sensitive data.
  • C. unauthorized access to servers and applications.
  • D. unauthorized data modification.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
A data loss prevention (DLP) program helps protect an organization from exfiltration of sensitive data. This is because exfiltration of sensitive data is a type of cyberattack that involves stealing or leaking sensitive or confidential information from an organization's systems or networks to an external destination or party.
Exfiltration of sensitive data can cause serious harm to an organization's reputation, operations, finances, legal compliance, etc. A DLP program helps to prevent exfiltration of sensitive data by detecting and blocking any unauthorized or suspicious attempts to access, copy, transfer, or share sensitive data by users or applications.
The other options are not cyberattacks that a DLP program helps protect an organization from, but rather different types of cyberattacks that affect other aspects or objectives of information security, such as crypto ransomware infection (A), unauthorized access to servers and applications (B), or unauthorized data modification C.


NEW QUESTION # 49
What would be an IS auditor's BEST response to an IT managers statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device?

  • A. The risk associated with mobile devices is less than that of other devices and systems.
  • B. The ability to wipe mobile devices and disable connectivity adequately mitigates additional
  • C. The risk associated with mobile devices cannot be mitigated with similar controls for workstations.
  • D. Replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST response to an IT manager's statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device is that replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels. Mobile devices pose unique risks to an organization due to their portability, connectivity, and functionality. Mobile devices may store or access sensitive data or systems that require privileged access, which can be compromised if the device is lost, stolen, or hacked. Mobile devices also have a higher chance of being misplaced or taken by unauthorized parties than other devices.


NEW QUESTION # 50
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in which of the following areas?

  • A. Cybersecurity operations management
  • B. Cybercrime, hacktism. and espionage
  • C. Industry-specific security regulator
  • D. Cybersecurity risk scenarios

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in the areas of cybercrime, hacktivism, and espionage. These are the main sources of malicious cyber activities that pose risks to organizations and individuals. Cyber threat intelligence helps to understand the motivations, capabilities, tactics, techniques, and procedures of various threat actors and groups.


NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends?

  • A. Cybercriminals
  • B. Hacktivists
  • C. Malware researchers
  • D. Script kiddies

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Hacktivists are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends. They may use various methods such as defacing websites, launching denial-of-service attacks, leaking confidential information, or spreading propaganda to advance their causes or protest against perceived injustices.


NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following cloud characteristics refers to resource utilization that can be optimized by leveraging charge-per-use capabilities?

  • A. Elasticity
  • B. Measured service
  • C. Resource pooling
  • D. On demand self-service

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The cloud characteristic that refers to resource utilization that can be optimized by leveraging charge-per-use capabilities is measured service. This is because measured service is a characteristic of cloud computing that involves monitoring, controlling, and reporting on the usage and consumption of cloud resources by cloud providers and consumers. Measured service helps to optimize resource utilization by leveraging charge-per-use capabilities, which means that cloud consumers only pay for the amount of resources that they actually use or consume, rather than paying for fixed or predetermined amounts of resources. The other options are not cloud characteristics that refer to resource utilization that can be optimized by leveraging charge-per-use capabilities, but rather different characteristics of cloud computing that describe other aspects or benefits of cloud services, such as on demand self-service (A), elasticity (B), or resource pooling (D).


NEW QUESTION # 53
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