2024 New FC0-U61 Exam Questions Real CompTIA Dumps
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NEW QUESTION # 142
A UPS provides protection against:
- A. replay attack.
- B. power outages.
- C. wiretapping.
- D. denial of service
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 143
A systems administrator is setting up a new server using RAID technology. If one hard drive in the array fails, the data is stored on another drive, preventing data loss. Which of the following business continuity concepts does this explain?
- A. Restoring access
- B. Fault tolerance
- C. File backup
- D. Data restoration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Fault tolerance is the ability of a system to continue functioning even when one or more components fail.
RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a technology that uses multiple hard drives to store data in a way that improves performance and reliability. If one hard drive in the RAID array fails, the data can be recovered from another drive without losing any information. This is an example of fault tolerance.
References: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 6:
Infrastructure Concepts, page 240.
NEW QUESTION # 144
A startup company has created a logo. The company wants to ensure no other entity can use the logo for any purpose. Which of the following should the company use to BEST protect the logo? (Select TWO).
- A. Trademark
- B. NDA
- C. EULA
- D. Copyright
- E. Patent
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Explanation
A logo is a graphical representation of a company's name, brand, or identity. A logo can be protected by both copyright and trademark laws. Copyright is a type of intellectual property that protects the original expression of ideas in tangible forms, such as books, music, art, or software. Copyright protects the logo from being copied, reproduced, or distributed without the permission of the owner. Trademark is a type of intellectual property that protects a word, phrase, symbol, or design that identifies and distinguishes the source of goods or services of one party from those of others. Trademark protects the logo from being used by other parties in a way that causes confusion or deception among consumers. References : The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 211.
NEW QUESTION # 145
An administrator grants permission for a user to access data in a database. Which of the following actions was performed?
- A. Data correlation
- B. Data definition
- C. Data gathering
- D. Data manipulation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data definition is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting the structure and objects of a database, such as tables, fields, indexes, and views. Data definition is performed using data definition language (DDL), which is a subset of SQL commands. An administrator can use DDL to grant or revoke permissions for a user to access data in a database. References : The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 144.
NEW QUESTION # 146
A network technician needs to ensure data on a network drive is fully backed up. Which of the following backups should the technician implement?
- A. Database
- B. Operating system
- C. File
- D. Webserver
Answer: C
Explanation:
A file backup is a type of backup that copies individual files or folders from a source to a destination. A file backup can be used to back up data on a network drive, as it allows the technician to select the specific files or folders that need to be backed up. A file backup can also be performed incrementally or differentially, which means that only the files that have changed since the last backup are copied, saving time and space. A file backup can be restored easily, as it does not require any special software or hardware to access the backed up files.
A database backup is a type of backup that copies the entire database or parts of it from a source to a destination. A database backup is used to back up data that is stored in a structured format, such as tables, records, and indexes. A database backup can be performed using the native tools of the database management system, such as SQL Server or Oracle, or using third-party software. A database backup can be restored using the same tools that performed the backup, and it may require some additional steps, such as restoring the transaction logs or applying the differential backups.
A webserver backup is a type of backup that copies the files and folders that are related to a webserver, such as HTML, CSS, JavaScript, PHP, images, and so on. A webserver backup is used to back up data that is used to host a website or a web application. A webserver backup can be performed using the file backup method, or using specialized software that can backup the webserver configuration, settings, and permissions. A webserver backup can be restored by copying the files and folders back to the webserver, or using the software that performed the backup.
An operating system backup is a type of backup that copies the entire operating system or parts of it from a source to a destination. An operating system backup is used to back up data that is essential for the functioning of the computer, such as the system files, the registry, the drivers, the applications, and the user settings. An operating system backup can be performed using the native tools of the operating system, such as Windows Backup or Time Machine, or using third-party software. An operating system backup can be restored by booting from a recovery media, such as a CD, DVD, or USB, or using the software that performed the backup.
References: Managing Backups - CompTIA A+ 220-1102, IT Fundamentals - CompTIA, Chapter 12 Compare and Contrast Storage Types - CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ (ITF+) Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition
NEW QUESTION # 147
A systems administrator wants to return results for a time range within a database. Which of the following commands should the administrator use?
- A. DELETE
- B. INSERT
- C. SELECT
- D. UPDATE
Answer: C
Explanation:
A SELECT command is a SQL (Structured Query Language) statement that is used to return results for a time range within a database. A SELECT command can specify the columns and rows to be retrieved from one or more tables based on certain criteria or conditions. A SELECT command can also use functions or operators to manipulate or filter the data. For example, a SELECT command can use the BETWEEN operator to specify a time range for a date column89. References := CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals3; SQL SELECT Statement - W3Schools10
NEW QUESTION # 148
Which of the following describes the concept of a database record?
- A. A collection of rows, columns, and constraints
- B. A collection of tables within different schemas
- C. A collection of fields about the same object
- D. A collection of schemas within the same database
Answer: C
Explanation:
The concept of a database record is best described as a collection of fields about the same object. A database record is a row in a table that represents an instance of an entity, such as a customer, an order, a product, etc. A database record consists of one or more fields that store data about the attributes of the entity, such as name, address, phone number, quantity, price, etc. A database record can be uniquely identified by a primary key, which is a field or a combination of fields that do not repeat in the table. A collection of rows, columns, and constraints is not the concept of a database record, but rather the concept of a database table. A database table is a structure that organizes data into rows and columns. Each row represents a record, and each column represents a field. A database table can have constraints that define the rules and restrictions for the data in the table, such as primary keys, foreign keys, unique keys, check constraints, etc. A collection of schemas within the same database is not the concept of a database record, but rather the concept of a database instance. A database instance is a set of memory structures and processes that manage and access a database. A database instance can contain one or more schemas, which are collections of objects that belong to a user or an application in the database, such as tables, views, indexes, etc. A collection of tables within different schemas is not the concept of a database record, but rather the concept of a database relationship. A database relationship is a connection between two tables that share common data. A database relationship can be established by using foreign keys, which are fields that reference the primary keys of another table. A database relationship can be one-to-one, one-to-many, or many-to-many depending on how many records in each table are related to each other. References: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 6: Database Fundamentals
NEW QUESTION # 149
A technician is having trouble connecting multiple users' laptops to the internet wirelessly. The users are on the west side of the building, which is hardwired. Which of the following should the technician do to resolve this issue quickly?
- A. Replace the users' laptops with desktop computers.
- B. Add a switch and hardwire the users' laptops.
- C. Add a network router.
- D. Add an access point for the users.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best solution for the technician to resolve the issue quickly is to add an access point for the users. An access point is a device that provides wireless connectivity to the network. An access point can be connected to a wired network and extend its coverage to wireless devices, such as laptops, smartphones, or tablets. By adding an access point on the west side of the building, the technician can enable the users' laptops to connect to the internet wirelessly without changing their hardware or software settings. Adding a switch and hardwiring the users' laptops is not a quick solution, as it would require installing cables and configuring the network settings on each laptop. Adding a network router is not necessary, as a router is a device that connects multiple networks and routes traffic between them. A router does not provide wireless connectivity by itself, unless it has a built-in access point. Replacing the users' laptops with desktop computers is not a feasible solution, as it would incur high costs and inconvenience for the users. References: CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 3: Infrastructure, pages 90-91
NEW QUESTION # 150
Which of the following programming concepts uses properties and attributes?
- A. Containers
- B. Identifiers
- C. Functions
- D. Objects
Answer: D
Explanation:
Objects are a programming concept that represent entities or concepts in the real world. Objects have properties and attributes that describe their characteristics and behavior. For example, a car object may have properties such as color, model, speed, and fuel, and attributes such as engine, wheels, doors, and seats.
Objects can also have methods, which are actions that the object can perform or that can be performed on the object. For example, a car object may have methods such as start, stop, accelerate, and brake. Objects are used to organize data and functionality in a modular and reusable way.
NEW QUESTION # 151
An online retailer experienced an outage. An investigation revealed that the server received more requests than it could handle, and customers could not log in as a result. Which of the following best describes this scenario?
- A. Denial of service
- B. Social engineering
- C. On-path attack
- D. Hardware failure
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The scenario where an online retailer experienced an outage because the server received more requests than it could handle and customers could not log in as a result is best described as a denial of service. A denial of service is a type of attack that aims to disrupt or prevent the normal functioning or availability of a system or network by overwhelming it with excessive traffic or requests. A denial of service can cause performance degradation, slowdown, or outage for the system or network and its legitimate users. A denial of service can be performed by a single attacker or a group of attackers using multiple compromised devices, which is called a distributed denial of service (DDoS). A hardware failure is not the scenario that describes the online retailer's outage, but rather a possible cause or consequence of the outage. A hardware failure is a malfunction or breakdown of a physical component of a system or network, such as a disk, a memory, a CPU, a power supply, etc. A hardware failure can cause data loss, corruption, or interruption for the system or network and its users. A hardware failure can be caused by various factors, such as wear and tear, physical damage, overheating, power surge, etc. A hardware failure can also be induced by a denial of service attack that damages the hardware by overloading it. An on-path attack is not the scenario that describes the online retailer's outage, but rather a type of network attack that involves intercepting or modifying data packets that are transmitted between two parties on a network. An on-path attack can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or authenticity of the data or communication between the parties. An on-path attack can be performed by an attacker who has access to the same network segment or device as one of the parties, such as a router, a switch, or a hub. An on-path attack can also be performed by an attacker who tricks one of the parties into sending data to them instead of the intended destination, which is called a man-in-the-middle attack. A social engineering attack is not the scenario that describes the online retailer's outage, but rather a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or revealing information that benefits the attacker. A social engineering attack can take various forms, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, quid pro quo, pretexting, or tailgating. References: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 7: Security Concepts
NEW QUESTION # 152
Which of the following would be considered the BEST method of securely distributing medical records?
- A. Encrypted flash drive
- B. Social networking sites
- C. Fax
- D. FTP file sharing
Answer: A
Explanation:
An encrypted flash drive would be the best method of securely distributing medical records among the given options. An encrypted flash drive is a portable storage device that uses encryption to protect the data stored on it. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable form that can only be restored with a key or password. Encryption can prevent unauthorized access or disclosure of sensitive or confidential data, such as medical records, if the flash drive is lost or stolen. An encrypted flash drive can also be used to transfer data between different devices or locations securely. References : The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 203.
NEW QUESTION # 153
A database administrator finds that a table is not needed in a relational database. Which of the following commands is used to completely remove the table and its data?
- A. DELETE
- B. DROP
- C. UPDATE
- D. ALTER
Answer: B
Explanation:
DROP is the command that is used to completely remove a table and its data from a relational database.
DROP is a SQL (Structured Query Language) statement that deletes the definition and contents of a database object, such as a table, index, or view. DROP cannot be undone, so it should be used with caution. For example, the statement DROP TABLE Customers; will delete the table named Customers and all its data from the database. References : The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 144.
NEW QUESTION # 154
Employees must use a badge to enter and exit the building. Each time the badge is used, a log entry is created and stored to record who has entered and exited the building. Which of the following best describes what the log entries provide?
- A. Authorization
- B. Accounting
- C. Automation
- D. Authentication
Answer: B
Explanation:
The log entries that are created and stored when employees use their badges to enter and exit the building provide accounting. Accounting is a security function that records and tracks user activities and events on a system or network. Accounting can provide evidence of user actions, such as authentication, authorization, access, modification, or deletion of data or resources. Accounting can also provide information for billing, auditing, or reporting purposes. Accounting can be implemented using log files, audit trails, or monitoring tools. Automation is not a security function, but rather a process of using technology to perform tasks or operations without human intervention. Automation can improve productivity, efficiency, accuracy, or reliability of a system or network. Automation can be implemented using scripts, programs, or tools. Authorization is not a security function that records and tracks user activities and events, but rather a security function that grants or denies user access to data or resources based on their identity and permissions. Authorization can ensure that users only access what they are allowed to access on a system or network. Authorization can be implemented using access control lists (ACLs), role-based access control (RBAC), or mandatory access control (MAC). Authentication is not a security function that records and tracks user activities and events, but rather a security function that verifies user identity based on credentials, such as passwords, tokens, biometrics, etc. Authentication can ensure that users are who they claim to be on a system or network. Authentication can be implemented using single-factor authentication (SFA), multi-factor authentication (MFA), or single sign-on (SSO). References: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 7: Security Concepts1
NEW QUESTION # 155
A user wants to ensure port 3389 is open for remote desktop on a PC. Which of the following describes where the user should verify the port is open?
- A. Device Manager
- B. Anti-malware
- C. Host firewall
- D. Antivirus
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 156
Which of the following BEST describes a technology that allows multiple users to create and edit reports at the same time?
- A. Informational intranet page
- B. Locally installed productivity software
- C. Text file on a shared drive
- D. Managed relational database
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A managed relational database is a type of database that is hosted and maintained by a cloud service provider such as Microsoft Azure or Amazon Web Services. A relational database is a type of database that organizes data into tables that are related to each other by common fields or attributes. A managed relational database would be the best option for allowing multiple users to create and edit reports at the same time because it can handle concurrent user requests, provide high availability and scalability, and perform complex queries and operations on the data. A text file on a shared drive, an informational intranet page, and locally installed productivity software are not options that can allow multiple users to create and edit reports at the same time because they cannot handle concurrent user requests, provide high availability and scalability, or perform complex queries and operations on the data. References: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals, page 197.
NEW QUESTION # 157
Which of the following would MOST likely use an ARM processor?
- A. Server
- B. Tablet
- C. Workstation
- D. Laptop
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 158
A technician is troubleshooting a problem. The technician tests the theory and determines the theory is confirmed. Which of the following should be the technician's NEXT step?
- A. Establish a plan of action.
- B. Implement the solution.
- C. Verify full system functionality.
- D. Document lessons learned.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 159
An application is hosted on a local network. Which of the following descriptions is correct?
- A. The application exists locally.
- B. Files are saved in the cloud.
- C. Internet access Is required.
- D. LAN access Is required.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
LAN access is required for an application that is hosted on a local network. A local network, also known as a local area network (LAN), is a group of devices that are connected within a limited geographic area, such as a home, an office, or a school. A LAN allows the devices to communicate and share resources, such as files, printers, or applications. An application that is hosted on a local network means that the application is installed and running on one or more devices within the LAN, and can be accessed by other devices within the same LAN. However, to access the application, the device must be connected to the LAN, either by a wired or wireless connection. The application does not exist locally on the device that accesses it, unless it is also installed on that device. The application does not save files in the cloud, unless it has a feature that allows it to sync with a cloud service. The application does not require internet access, unless it needs to communicate with external servers or services outside the LAN. References: CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 3: Infrastructure, pages 83-84
NEW QUESTION # 160
A systems administrator wants to run a script at a certain time every day. Which of the following is the BEST way to achieve this?
- A. Perform process management.
- B. Set the system date and time.
- C. Perform task scheduling.
- D. Set a reminder to run the script.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 161
An attacker is using subversive tactics to gain the trust of a target in order to obtain entry to a location or access to confidential information. Which of the following best describes this scenario?
- A. Social engineering
- B. Phishing attack
- C. Eavesdropping
- D. On-path attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The scenario where an attacker is using subversive tactics to gain the trust of a target in order to obtain entry to a location or access to confidential information is best described as social engineering. Social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or revealing information that benefits the attacker. Social engineering can take various forms, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, quid pro quo, pretexting, or tailgating. Phishing attack is a type of social engineering attack that involves sending fraudulent emails or messages that appear to come from legitimate sources to trick recipients into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or providing personal or financial information.
On-path attack is a type of network attack that involves intercepting or modifying data packets that are transmitted between two parties on a network.
Eavesdropping is a type of network attack that involves listening to or capturing data packets that are transmitted between two parties on a network.
References: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 7: Security Concepts1
NEW QUESTION # 162
Which of the following would be best to use to store a project task list that will be updated by multiple team members?
- A. Document sharing software
- B. Visual diagramming software
- C. Conferencing software
- D. Database software
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Document sharing software is a type of software that allows multiple users to access, edit, and collaborate on the same document over the internet. Document sharing software can be useful for storing a project task list that will be updated by multiple team members, as it can provide features such as version control, real-time editing, commenting, chat, and access control. Document sharing software can also sync the document across different devices and platforms, making it easy to access and update the task list from anywhere. Some examples of document sharing software are Google Docs, Microsoft OneDrive, Dropbox Paper, and Zoho Docs
NEW QUESTION # 163
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